If we take a rope of length $x$ which is rational quantity and we make a circle out of it, we measure its diameter which is also rational, if we divide a rational number by another rational number we should get a rational number but the division of length of circumference and diameter should give $π$ which is irrational...?
closed as off-topic by Xander Henderson, vonbrand, José Carlos Santos, Leucippus, Isaac Browne May 8 '18 at 0:48
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Xander Henderson, vonbrand, José Carlos Santos, Leucippus, Isaac Browne
When you measure the length of something or the diameter of a circle in real life it looks like some rational number ... but that doesn't mean it is. In real life you just can't get any precise measurement of something.
And don't forget that math is an abstraction ... Lines in math have no thickness, whereas ropes in real life do; so how exactly would you even measure the diameter when laying the rope in a circle?
The diameter will not be rational. It will be a rational number divided by $\pi$.