Why $\mathrm{Ext}^n_{R[t]}(X, Y)\simeq\mathrm{Ext}^n_R(X, Y)\oplus\mathrm{Ext}^{n-1}_R(X, Y)$? I am stuck in a step of this problem

Suppose that $R$ is a ring and $X$ and $Y$ are $R$-modules. If $X$ and $Y$ are regarded as $R[t]$(the polynomial ring over $R$)-modules through the ring homomorphism $R[t]\to R$, $t\mapsto 0$, then $\operatorname{Ext}^n_{R[t]}(X, Y)\simeq\operatorname{Ext}^n_R(X, Y)\oplus\operatorname{Ext}^{n-1}_R(X, Y).$


Here is what I have for the moment:
Let us consider the exact sequence $$0\longrightarrow R[t]\overset{\times t}{\longrightarrow}R[t]\longrightarrow R\longrightarrow 0.$$ Tensoring with $X$ produces an exact (since $R_R$ is flat) sequence of $R[t]$-modules $$0\longrightarrow R[t]\otimes_R X\overset{\times t}{\longrightarrow}R[t]\otimes_R X\longrightarrow X\longrightarrow 0.$$ Then applying the derived functor $R\operatorname{Hom}_{R[t]}(-,Y)$ to it we obtain a long exact sequence
\begin{align}
0&\to\operatorname{Hom}_{R[t]}(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\overset{\times t}{\to}\operatorname{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\\
&\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^1(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^1(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\overset{\times t}{\to}\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^1(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\\
&\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^2(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^2(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\to\cdots
\end{align}
Since $t$ annihilates $Y$ and $$\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^n(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)=\operatorname{Hom}_{D(R[t]-\mathsf{Mod})}((R[t]\otimes_RX)[-n],Y),$$ it can be seen that the morphisms marked with $\times t$ are actually all $0$. Moreover by choosing a projective resolution of $X$ it can be shown that $\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^n(R[t]\otimes_RX,Y)\simeq\operatorname{Ext}_{R}^n(X,Y)$. Thus far the long exact sequence can be tore into exact sequences
\begin{align}
0&\to\operatorname{Hom}_{R[t]}(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(X,Y)\to 0\\
0&\to\operatorname{Hom}_{R}(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^1(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R}^1(X,Y)\to 0\\
0&\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R}^1(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R[t]}^2(X,Y)\to\operatorname{Ext}_{R}^2(X,Y)\to 0\\
&\cdots
\end{align}

And I am stuck here, as not being able to show that these short exact sequences split. So I would like to ask for some hints of what to do next, and thanks in advance...
 A: This is a summary of the comments above, which addresses the problem why those short exact sequences split. Let us start with the exact sequence $$0\to R[t]\otimes_RX\overset{\times t}{\to}R[t]\otimes_RX\to X\to 0.$$
It induces a distinguished triangle $$R[t]\otimes_RX\overset{\times t}{\to}R[t]\otimes_RX\to X\to R[t]\otimes_RX[1]$$ in $D(R[t]\operatorname{-}\mathsf{Mod})$. Applying $R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(-,Y)$ to it, we arrive at a distinguished triangle $(\ast)$: $$R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX, Y)[-1]\to R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(X, Y)\to R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX, Y)\overset{\times t}{\to}R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX, Y)$$ and it remains to verify that $\times t$ is the zero morphism. To this end, pick a projective resolution $P\overset{qis}{\twoheadrightarrow} R[t]\otimes_RX$ (that is, $P\in K^-(R[t]\operatorname{-}\mathsf{Mod})$ with $P^{-i}$ projective). It follows that $$R\mathrm{Hom}_{R[t]}(R[t]\otimes_RX, Y)\simeq\operatorname{Hom}^\bullet_{R[t]}(P,Y)$$ and therefore it can be seen that the morphism $\times t$ in $(\ast)$ is $0$, since $t$ annihilates $Y$.
