Question: let $a_{i},(i=1,2,\cdots,n)$ be real number,show that $$\sum_{i,j=1}^{n}\dfrac{a_{i}a_{j}}{\max{(i,j)}}\le 4\sum_{i=1}^{n}a^2_{i}\tag{1}$$
Hilbert's Inequality:
For any real numbers $a_1,a_2\cdots,a_n$ the following inequality holds: $$\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{a_ia_j}{i+j}\leq\pi\sum_{i=1}^na_i^2$$.
Proof: I was reading a proof of this inequality where first they applied Cauchy Schwarz to get $$(\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{a_ia_j}{i+j})^2\leq(\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{\sqrt{i}a_i^2}{\sqrt{j}(i+j)})(\sum_{i=1}^n\sum_{j=1}^n\frac{\sqrt{j}a_j^2}{\sqrt{i}(i+j)})$$.
Then they stated that it suffices to prove $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sqrt{m}}{(m+n)\sqrt{n}}\leq\pi$$ for any positive integer $m$. and $$\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\,\frac{\sqrt{m}}{(m+n)\sqrt{n}}<\int_0^\infty\,\frac{\sqrt{m}}{(m+x)\sqrt{x}}\,\text{d}x=\Bigg.\Bigg(2\arctan\left(\sqrt{\frac{x}{m}}\right)\Bigg)\Bigg|_{x=0}^{x=\infty}=\pi$$
But for $(1)$ I think use integral to solve it,can you help?