In the book "Naive Set Theory" of Halmos there is a sentence that
... the unique set $A \times B$ that consists exactly of the ordered pairs $(a, b)$ with $a$ in $A$ and $b$ in $B$. This set is called the Cartesian product of $A$ and $B$; it is characterized by the fact that $A \times B = \{ x : x = (a, b) \text{ for some } a \in A \text{ and for some } b \in B\}$
I can't understand several things here and I think I miss some important points.
- Why "for some" instead of "for all"? Because it implies there may be such $(a, b)$ where actually $a \in A \text{ and } b \in B$ but $(a, b) \notin A \times B$.
- It is said that "it is characterized by the fact". Which fact? Can you explain? Is applying the axiom of specification called "the fact" if I understand the axiom correctly? In my understanding defining (or specifying) a set using a sentence whose elements are elements of another existing set is what the axiom is about.
Also I noticed such a comment, where the author says that the definition in the question is not actually from naive set theory and rewrote it using "for some" claiming it would be from naive set theory. But I can't understand what is the catch here.