If $f$ is measurable and differentiable almost everywhere and if there is some $g \in L^1(\mathbb{R})$ such that $|f(x+y)-f(x)| \leq g(x)|y|$ for almost all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and all $y \in \mathbb{R}$, then $f' \in L^1(\mathbb{R})$ and $$\int_a^b f'(x)dx = f(b) - f(a)$$ if $f'(a)$ and $f'(b)$ exist.
$f' \in L^1$ is obvious since $|f'| \leq g \in L^1$ almost everywhere, so I need advice on the second part.
I have not found any way to make use of the hypotheses of $f'(a)$ and $f'(b)$ existing. All of the relevant theorems I've reviewed for when $\int_a^b f'(x)dx = f(b) - f(a)$ hold for all $a$ and $b$ require stronger assumptions that do not seem to hold here. So, the assumption that $f'(a)$ and $f'(b)$ exist must be vitally important, I presume.
If we define $F(x) = \int_{-\infty}^x f'(t)dt$, then $F' = f'$ almost everywhere so $\int_a^b F' = \int_a^b f'$, but this doesn't seem to get me anywhere. Any advice is appreciated.