Question: Integrate$$I=\int\limits_{0}^{\pi/2}dx\,\cos^{v-1}x\cos ax$$
I'm having a bit of trouble understanding the solution to the question. Here's what I've gotten so far$$\begin{align*}I & =\frac 12\int\limits_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}dx\,\cos^{v-1}x\cos ax\\ & =\frac 1{2^v}\int\limits_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}dx\,\left(1+e^{2xi}\right)^{v-1}e^{-i(v-1)x}\cos ax\\ & =\frac 1{2^v}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{v-1}\binom {v-1}n\int\limits_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}dx\, e^{xi(2n-v+1)}\cos ax\end{align*}$$Now consider the function$$f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{}e^{i\omega x}\qquad\text{for }-\tfrac {\pi}2<x<\tfrac {\pi}2\\\\0\qquad\quad\text{otherwise}\end{array}\right.$$The Fourier transform of $f(x)$ is$$\mathscr{F}(f(x))=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx\, f(x)e^{-i\alpha x}$$Therefore$$\begin{align*}\Re\left(\mathscr{F}(f(x))\right) & =\frac {2\sin(\omega-\alpha)\tfrac {\pi}2}{\omega-\alpha}\,\Biggr\rvert_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\end{align*}$$I'm having trouble seeing how the real part of the fourier transform is equal to the right-hand expression. When I evaluate it, I don't seem to get the right answer. Can somebody help clear this out for me?