I am looking into pricing options in finance and I came across the following problem: I want to simplify the probability:
$\mathbf{Q}(z_1 > - \hat{d}_1, z_2 > \hat{d}_2), $
where $z_1$ and $z_2$ are two standard normal variables such that $z_1 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{T_0}}W^{*}_{T_0}$ and $z_2 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{T}}W^{*}_{T}$, where $T>T_0$ and $W^{*}_{T}$ is the standard Brownian motion on the increment $T$. Furthermore, $\hat{d}_1$ and $\hat{d}_2$ are described as:
$\hat{d}_1 = \frac{\text{ln}\big(\frac{S(0)}{\bar{x}}\big) + (r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T_0}{\sigma\sqrt{T_0}},$
$\hat{d}_2 = \frac{\text{ln}\big(\frac{S(0)}{K}\big) + (r - \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)T}{\sigma\sqrt{T}}.$
where $S(0)$ is the stock price at time $0$, $r$ is the risk-free rate, $\sigma^2$ is the annualized volatility and $K$ and $\bar{x}$ are constants.
I am quite sure that the distribution I am looking for is the bivariate normal, but I have no idea how to get there.