I'm trying to prove that $\;\ln(\ln(1+\frac{1}{\vert x \vert}))\;$ is a counterexample for the non embedding of $\;W^{1,2}(\{\vert x \vert\ \lt 1\})\;$ space into $\;L^{\infty}(\{\vert x \vert \lt 1\})\;$.
I've got trouble showing $\;\ln(\ln(1+\frac{1}{\vert x \vert}))\notin L^{\infty}(\{\vert x \vert \lt 1\})\;$. In class, we've mainly studied $\;L^p-$norms for $\;1 \le p \lt \infty\;$, thus I 'm a little bit confused on how I should proceed.
I know that $\;f \notin L^{\infty}(\{\vert x \vert \lt 1\})\;$ means that for all $\;M \gt 0\;$ there exists $\;A\subset \{\vert x \vert \lt 1\}\;$ with $\;μ(A)\gt 0\;$ and $\;\vert f \vert \gt M\;$ on $A\;$. But how do I find such $\;A\;$ for my chosen function?
Furthermore, in class when it comes to $\;f \in L^{\infty}\;$, we mostly handle it as it suffices to find an upper bound for $\;\vert f \vert\;$, but this doesn't imply necessary essentially boundness, does it?
I would really appreciate if somebody could help me because I feel lost. Thanks in advance!