I have some problems with the following example of a PDE:
Let $\Omega = \{(\varphi, r)| r \in (0,1), \varphi \in (0, \frac{3}{2}\pi)\}$ which is basically the unitsphere with a quarter piece broken out of it. And $$f(r,\varphi) = 0 \text{ in } \Omega \\ g(r,\varphi) = \sin \left( \frac{2}{3}\varphi \right) \text{ in } \delta\Omega $$ be the given PDE. Now they say: we transform the Laplace-operator with polar coordinates $$x = r \cos(\varphi)\\ y = r \sin \left( \varphi \right)$$ and $u(r,\varphi)=r^ \frac{2}{3} \sin \left( \frac{2}{3} \varphi \right)$ yields a solution of the boundary value problem.
But there is no Laplace-Operator in the PDE. So I must assume, that they also mean $\Delta u =0$ referring to the first of the two equations. But when I check it, I get the following: $$\Delta u = u_{rr} + u_{\varphi\varphi}=-\frac{2}{9}r^{-4/3} \sin(\frac{2}{3} \varphi) -\frac{4}{9} r^{2/3} \sin \left( \frac{2}{3} \varphi \right) $$ Which is not zero. What is the problem here?
They proceed to show $u \notin C^1(\bar{\Omega})$ to point out, that the solution space $C^2(\Omega) \cap C(\bar{\Omega})$ cannot be chosen smaller:
With $u_x$ and $u_y$ bounded, it should be that $u_r$ is bounded, because: $$u_r = u_x x_r + u_y y_r = u_x \cos(\varphi) + u_y \sin(\varphi)$$ But $ u_r = \frac{2}{3} r^{-1/3} \sin \left( \frac{2}{3} \varphi \right) \rightarrow \infty$ as $ r \rightarrow 0$
but what are $u_x$ and $u_y$ in the first place? And why is it possible to split $u_r$ like this? I seem to be all over the place with it.