Prove $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({1+\frac 1 {{n}}})$ is divergent. 
Evaluate if the following series is convergent or divergent: $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({1+\frac 1 {{n}}})$.

I tried to evaluate the divergence, applying the Weierstrass comparison test:
$\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({1+\frac 1 {{n}}})>\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({\frac 1 {{n}}})$. Since the function is decreasing then as $1+\frac{1}{n}$ is closer to $0$ then the inequality follows.
Obviously $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({\frac 1 {{n}}})$ diverges since $\lim_{n\to\infty}\ln({\frac 1 {{n}}})=-\infty$.
Questions:
1) Is my answer right? If not why?
2) What other kind of approach do you propose?
Thanks in advance!
 A: $$\sum_{n=1}^N\ln\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)=\ln(N+1)\to\infty\textrm{ as }N\to\infty$$
A: 1) Your answer is not correct. The only way you can say that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ diverges because $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n$ diverges and $a_n\geq b_n$ (comparison test) is if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_n \to \infty$. For a concrete example, take $a_n=0$ and $b_n=-1$. 
2) I would recommend using the limit comparison test on $\ln(1+1/n)$ and $1/n$. 
A: Isn't right because $\log(1/n)<0$, But you can use that
$$n\to\infty\implies \log(1+1/n)\approx\frac1n.$$
A: Let S be the sum of the series. The comparison you used only tells you that $S > -\infty,$ which is useless.
To determine convergence, try using the fact that $\ln a + \ln b = \ln(ab).$ Notice that $1+1/n = \frac{n+1}{n}.$
A: 1) Well, you haven't shown that $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \ln({1+\frac 1 {{n}}})$ diverges.  You've show that the sum is $\ge -\infty$ but that is true of all series, right?
2) Try comparing $\ln(1+\frac{1}{n})$ to $\frac{1}{n}.$
A: HINT:
$$
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln(1+(1/n))}{\frac1n}=1.
$$
And your evaluation of strictly positive series by negative series from below is incorrect (useless).
A: use the inequality $\text{log}(1+x) > \frac{x}{1+x}$ for any nonzero $x \geq -1$ and you get $\text{log}(1+1/n)> \frac{1}{1+
n}$. Summing over both sides over all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ yields the harmonic series on the right, which does not converge.
A: Hint: Assume that $p_n\ge0$ with $p_n\to 0$ as $n\to\infty$. Then, by $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac{\log(1+p_n)}{p_n}=\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\log(1+x)}{x}=1$$ and the limit comparison test you have that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\log(1+p_n)$ and $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}p_n$ are equivalent, meaning that either both converge or both diverge.
