I know math only (somewhat) as a recreation, so I know this is a naive and ignorant question, but I don't have the mathematical terminology or experience to figure out why it has to be incorrect. I am not claiming a proof of Goldbach's Conjecture, just trying to determine what I'm missing in what the desired proof is supposed to show. I know the StackExchange moderation is tough and this kind of question might get closed off the bat, but I hope someone will indulge me in a little help on this one.
Here goes: If it is true that the prime numbers can be put into a 1-1 correspondence with the even numbers, and if doubling any prime number yields an even number, why doesn't that prove Goldbach's Conjecture?
Again, this sounds so trivial that of course it can't be the answer. But I'm curious about why it isn't.
Thank you for any help.