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If I have the fraction $\dfrac{(2n)!}{2!((2n)-2)!}$, am I allowed to factor out the $2$ so that the equation becomes $ 2 \cdot \dfrac{n!}{1!(n-1)!}$? If not, is there anything I can do with it?

Edit: clarified, changed $2n!$ to $(2n)!$

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    $\begingroup$ Is that really $2n!$ in the numerator, or is it supposed to be $(2n)!$ ? $\endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 16:46

3 Answers 3

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Note that

$$\frac{(2n)!}{2!(2n-2)!}=\frac{(2n)(2n-1)(2n-2)!}{2!(2n-2)!}=n(2n-1)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ (+1) assuming the OP meant $(2n)!$. $\endgroup$
    – robjohn
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 16:48
  • $\begingroup$ @robjohn Thanks, much appreciative! $\endgroup$
    – user
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 16:51
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks @gimusi. That really helped. -OP $\endgroup$
    – Londala
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 17:00
  • $\begingroup$ @Londala You are welcome! Bye $\endgroup$
    – user
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 17:04
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$$(2n)!=2n\cdot(2n-1)\cdot\ldots\cdot(n+1)\cdot n!$$

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No, that doesn't work. You are making numerous mistakes here! It seems that you are doing something like:

$$\frac{2n!}{2!(2n-2)!} \overset{\text{'take out 2's'}}{=} 2\cdot \frac{\not{2}\cdot n!}{(\not{2}\cdot 1!)(\not{2}\cdot (n-1)!)}= 2\cdot \frac{n!}{1!(n-1)!}$$

OK, I can see three mistakes:

First of all, if both the numerator and denominator are divisible by $2$, then you remove the $2$ on both sides, but you do not add a $2$ to the front; that's not what we mean by 'take out a $2$'

Second, you are trying to get a $2$ out of every term, i.e. take a $2$ out of $2n!$, out of $2!$, and out of $(2n-2)!$. But, that means that you get two $2$'s in the denominator, rather than one. And you can only get rid of one given that you would have only one $2$ in the numerator. That is, it is not true that:

$$\frac{2a}{2b\cdot2c}=\frac{a}{bc}$$

but rather you get:

$$\frac{2a}{2b\cdot2c}=\frac{\not{2}a}{\not{2}b\cdot 2c}=\frac{a}{2bc}$$

Third, you are assuming that $(2n)!=2 \cdot n!$, which is not true. You have that:

$$(2n)! = (2(n))!$$

but that is not the same as $2\cdot n!$. You're effectively assuming that $(a \cdot b)! = a \cdot b!$, which you can easily verify is not the case.

Likewise, you cannot say that $(2n-2)! = 2\cdot (n-1)!$

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  • $\begingroup$ it was meant to be (2n)!. Sorry $\endgroup$
    – Londala
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 16:59
  • $\begingroup$ @AlexLondal Yes, I figured ... the moral is: be really careful with your notation! As my Answer shows: you made various mistakes. So, please pay attention to my corrections: you'll learn more from your mistakes than from getting the right answer $\endgroup$
    – Bram28
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 17:02
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah @Bram28. Thanks for the help $\endgroup$
    – Londala
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 17:11
  • $\begingroup$ @Londala You're welcome! Keep visiting Math.SE: you can learn a lot here! :) $\endgroup$
    – Bram28
    Commented Mar 8, 2018 at 17:12

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