Before I continue asking my question, I have seen this exact same question posted numerous times, but I don't feel like I seen any answers that were satisfactory in answering my complaint. For some reason, this idea is just not "clicking".
First off, I know the definition of pointwise convergence and uniform convergence. I also know that uniform convergence implies continuity. But I am still having trouble with the deeper understanding of uniform continuity.
I will use an example from the book to illustrate my confusion: For each natural number n, define $f_n(x)=x^n$ for $0 \leq x \leq 1$. We know that $\lim_{n \to \infty} f_n(1)=1$ and that for $0\leq x < 1$, $\lim_{n \to \infty}=0$. So, $\{f_n\}$ converges pointwise on $[0,1]$ to $f$, where $f=1$ if $x=1$, and $f=0$ if $0 \leq x < 1$. I understand this completely. However, my book says it fails to be uniformly convergent. I understand this is because $f$ is not continuous and it fails at $x=1$, but why? The book I have uses this definition for uniform convergence: $\{f_n\}$ converges uniformly to $f$, provided that for each positive number $\epsilon$, there exists an $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $$|f(x)-f_n(x)|<\epsilon$$ for all $n\geq N$ and all points $x \in D$. However, hasn't this definition been satisfied? Given any $\epsilon$ you'd give me, $|f(x)-f_n(x)|<\epsilon$ for all points. I don't see how $x=1$ is a problem and I don't see how this connects to continuity at all.