The idea is similar to the one in Banach spaces you posted. Since we are in Hilbert spaces we have $\mathcal F\simeq\mathcal F^*$ with the Riesz isomorphism $\Psi z:=\langle z,\cdot\rangle$ which we can use. Also it's wise to consider vectors form the unit ball (as your $f^*(f)=1$ condition translates to $\langle f,f\rangle=\Vert f\Vert^2=1$.)
Let any $x\in\mathcal E$ and fix $y_0\in\mathcal F$ with $\Vert x\Vert_{\mathcal E}=\Vert y_0\Vert_{\mathcal F}=1$ be given. Then
$$
\langle x,Tx\rangle_{\mathcal E} =\langle x\otimes y_0,(T\otimes\operatorname{id}_{\mathcal F})(x\otimes y_0)\rangle_{\mathcal E\otimes \mathcal F}=\langle x\otimes y_0,(\operatorname{id}_{\mathcal E}\otimes S)(x\otimes y_0)\rangle_{\mathcal E\otimes \mathcal F}=\langle y_0,Sy_0\rangle_{\mathcal F}
$$
because $(A\otimes B)(x\otimes y_0)=Ax\otimes By_0$ by the definition of the tensor product of bounded linear operators. So this means $\langle x,Tx\rangle_{\mathcal E}=\alpha$ on the unit ball of $\mathcal E$ where $\alpha:=\langle y_0,Sy_0\rangle$ is a constant independent of $x$. Now we get
$$
\langle z,(T-\alpha \operatorname{id}_{\mathcal E})z\rangle=\Vert z\Vert^2\Big\langle\frac{z}{\Vert z\Vert},T\frac{z}{\Vert z\Vert}\Big\rangle-\alpha\langle z,\operatorname{id}_{\mathcal E}z\rangle=\Vert z\Vert^2\alpha-\alpha\Vert z\Vert^2=0
$$
for all $z\in\mathcal E$ (where $z=0$ is the obvious case). As we are in a complex Hilbert space, by a well known result this means $T=\alpha \operatorname{id}_{\mathcal E}$. This yields
$$
\langle y,Sy\rangle=\langle x\otimes y,(\operatorname{id}\otimes S)(x\otimes y)\rangle=\langle x\otimes y,(T\otimes\operatorname{id})(x\otimes y)\rangle=\langle x,Tx\rangle=\langle y_0,Sy_0\rangle
$$
for any $y\ (,x)$ from the unit ball of $\mathcal F\ (,\mathcal E)$ so with the same argument as above, we see that $S$ has to be a multiple of the identity as well which concludes the proof.