This question asks for the symmetric case, but after consideration I believe that any complex square matrix with zero trace is unitarily similar to a matrix with zero diagonal. This answer to another related question has a demonstration of the not necessarily unitary affirmative.
Is the unitary case known true or false already?
For reference, this is what makes me think it is true:
Consider the set of values from the diagonal one pair at a time, say $d_0$ and $d_1$. We have the principal submatrix $$\pmatrix{d_0 & x \\ y & d_1}$$ The general unitary transform (for any $c$ and $s$ such that $cc^* + ss^* = 1$) is \begin{align} & \pmatrix{c & s \\ -s^* & c^*}\pmatrix{d_0 & x \\ y & d_1}\pmatrix{c^* & -s \\ s^* & c} \\ = & \pmatrix{cd_0 + sy& cx+sd_1 \\ -d_0s^* + c^*y & -s^*x+c^*d_1}\pmatrix{c^* & -s \\ s^* & c} \\ = & \pmatrix{\vert c \vert^2d_0 +\vert s\vert^2d_1 + cs^*x + c^*sy & -csd_0 - s^2y + c^2x + csd_1\\ -c^*s^*d_0 +(c^*)^2y - (s^*)^2x + csd_1& \vert s \vert^2d_0 +\vert c\vert^2d_1 - c^*sy - cs^*x} \\ \end{align} The question at this point is if for some $c$ and $s$ can we have zero in the bottom right: $$\vert c \vert^2d_0 +\vert s\vert^2d_1 = (cs^*)x + (c^*s)y$$
From this point I visualize on the complex plane.
The left side is in terms of only magnitudes. Parameterizing the magnitude ratio of $c$ and $s$ gives the value on a line between the points $d_0$ and $d_1$.
The RHS (right hand side) is arbitrary in terms of complex angle. If $x$ and $y$ are large enough, then some angle for $c^*s$ (and opposite angle for $cs^*$) gives equality. The endpoints of the LHS line where $c=0$ or $s=0$ coincide with right hand side zero. At the middle points on the path between $d_0$ and $d_1$, the circle of angle possibilities for the right hand side grows, thus (if $x$ and $y$ are large enough) the possibility of equality exists with appropriate choice of angle for $c$ and $s$.
For smaller values of $x$ and $y$, then a point closer to zero is attainable. For $x=0$ and $y=0$ a midpoint between $d_0$ and $d_1$ is closer to zero because the pair may be chosen as such due to the zero trace. Thus an iterative method converging to zero for all points is possible.
As this argument is not terribly rigorous, I am wondering if the result is already known? Or would it be worth my time to formalize the argument?