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why does the second term of the cross product ( in the direction of $y$) have minus before it? Thanks in advance

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  • $\begingroup$ Take also a look here for the definition and the calculation by formal determinant if you are not aware about it. Bye en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cross_product $\endgroup$
    – user
    Feb 25, 2018 at 16:14

3 Answers 3

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It is necessary to fulfill the definition of the cross-product.

From the geometrical point of view, since cross-product corresponds to the signed area of the parallelogram which has the two vectors as sides, we can find the minus-sign in its expression by the symbolic determinant which indeed requires a minus-sign for the $\vec j$ coordinate, according to Laplace’s expansion for the determinant.

This obviously is not proof but it’s a good way to remember that.

To prove, we can start by the definition for the unitary vectors along coordinates axes:

  • $\vec i \times \vec j=\vec k, \quad \vec j \times \vec k=\vec i, \quad \vec k\times \vec i=\vec j.$

  • $\vec j \times \vec i=-\vec k, \quad \vec k \times \vec j=-\vec i, \quad \vec i\times \vec k=-\vec j$.

And assuming

  • $\vec u = u_x \vec i +u_y \vec j +u_z \vec k$;
  • $\vec v = v_x \vec i +v_y \vec j +v_z \vec k$.

And then computing the product using the given definitions for the unitary vectors.

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That is how the cross product is defined.

It is defined this way to ensure, for example, that $\mathbf{a}\times\mathbf{b}$ is perpendicular to $\mathbf{a}$ and $\mathbf{b}$.

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The cross product has an associated sign depending on the order of constitutive vectors it is formed out of. Accordingly the sign must be compulsorily required to be defined with a rule, the right hand rule.

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