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Let $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ , there is $k \in \mathbb{R}$, $|k|\ne 1$, so that for every $x\in \mathbb{R} , f(kx)=f(x).$

Show that if $f$ continuous at $0$ then $f$ is a constant function.


I tried to find something to show it from the definition of continuous function but I didn't know how to continue.

We have that $f$ continuous at $0$ if for every $\epsilon>0$ there is $\delta>0$ such that $|x-0|<\delta \implies |f(x)-f(0)|<\epsilon$

And if $f$ not continuous on $0$ is $f$ still a constant function?

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    $\begingroup$ Suppose $0<k<1$. Note that $f(x)=f(kx)=f(k^2x)= f(k^3x)= ...$. These converge to $0$, so you have (by continuity) that $f(x)=f(0)$. $\endgroup$
    – Crostul
    Commented Feb 25, 2018 at 10:06
  • $\begingroup$ Not the same but similar and related: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1111361/… $\endgroup$
    – velut luna
    Commented Feb 25, 2018 at 10:48
  • $\begingroup$ $|k|\ne 1$..... $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2018 at 12:21
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    $\begingroup$ You are reminded to use tag that describes the questions. Your question is not about "functions", although your question has a function $f$ in it. $\endgroup$
    – user99914
    Commented Feb 26, 2018 at 1:16

1 Answer 1

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Here is some hints:

0) Deal with the case $k=0.$

We now assume that $k\neq 0$.

1) prove that for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$, you have $f(x)=f(x/k)$.

2) Deduce you may assume $\vert k\vert<1$.

Assume for the rest of the proof that $\vert k\vert<1$.

3) Show that for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and all integer $n\geq 1$, you have $f(k^nx)=f(x)$.

4) Conclude using continuity at $0$.

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  • $\begingroup$ How would we achieve 2)? How could we deduce we may assume $|k| < 1$ and what do you exactly mean by that? What is the relevance? Thank you! $\endgroup$
    – D. Petrov
    Commented Dec 11, 2019 at 15:07

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