0
$\begingroup$

Let $I_n = [a_n,b_n]$ be a nested family of closed intervals, that is, $a_n,b_n \in \Bbb R$, $a_n < b_n$, with $a_n ≤ a_n+1$ and $b_n ≥ b_n+1$ for every $n$. Assume that $\lim_{n\to\infty}(b_n − a_n) = 0$. Suppose $\{x_n\}_{n≥1}$ is a sequence of real numbers, where $x_n \in I_n$ for every $n$. Show that $\{x_n\}_{n≥1}$ is convergent.

As the sequence $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ are both convergent and converges to the same limit hence the nested interval has a convergent sequence now $(x_n)$ belongs to $(a_n)$ or $(b_n)$ or intersection of both two. Now if it belongs to $a_n$ or $b_n$ then convergent but what if it belongs to its intersection As the intersection will be non empty then how to proceed?

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by the intersection of the sequences $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$? And if the intervals are all nondegenerate, there’s no reason to think that any $x_n$ belongs to either of them. For example, you could have $x_n=(a_n+b_n)/2$. $\endgroup$
    – MPW
    Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:14
  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean with "...$(x_n)$ belongs to $(a_n)$..."? $\endgroup$
    – drhab
    Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:17
  • $\begingroup$ If (xn) is a subsequence of (an) or (bn) $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:20
  • $\begingroup$ Does one need cauchy's theorem on intervals to prove it $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:21
  • $\begingroup$ This is just the so-called “squeeze theorem”, since $a_n\leq x_n\leq b_n$ $\endgroup$
    – MPW
    Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:25

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Suppose that $(x_n)_n$ does not converge.

Then it is not a Cauchy-sequence so an $\epsilon>0$ exists such that for all $n\in\mathbb N$ we can find $k,m\geq n$ with $|x_k-x_m|>\epsilon$.

However, we have $a_n\leq x_k\leq b_n$ and $a_n\leq x_m\leq b_n$ so that $|x_k-x_m|\leq b_n-a_n$.

This leads to a contradiction.

Do you see how?

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ xm =xk so it is contradicting epsilon $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:55
  • $\begingroup$ Can it be dine via squeeze theorem $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 10:56
  • $\begingroup$ You can choose the $n$ as large as you want, and for $n$ large enough we have $b_n-a_n\leq\epsilon$. This combined with $|x_k-x_m|\leq b_n-a_n$ contradicts $|x_k-x_m|>\epsilon$. $\endgroup$
    – drhab
    Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 11:02
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, it can be done by squeeze theorem (help yourself). But my answer is more direct and avoids functions. $\endgroup$
    – drhab
    Commented Feb 24, 2018 at 11:11

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .