I am currently reading Lurie's - Higher Topos Theory, but am having difficulties from the very beginning. I know that the topic is too broad and different mathematicians may define differently some of the notions that shall be mentioned in this post. Therefore I adapt the notation and terminology, Lurie adapts in his book. In view of that, he defines an $\infty-$category, to be a simplicial set say, $S \in Set_{\Delta}$, which satisfies the horn-condition, i.e., for any $n \geq 0$ and $0 < i < n$, any map $\Lambda^n_i \rightarrow S$, extends to a map $\Delta^n \rightarrow S$. However, some pages above, he explicitly says
"In this book, we consider only ($\infty$,1)-categories: that is, higher categories in which all k-morphisms are assumed to be invertible for $k > 1$."
While later on he writes out
Unless we specify otherwise, the generic term “$\infty$-category” will refer to an ($\infty$,1)-category.
Here is the point where I got stuck. In my understanding so far, these $\infty$-categories are literally functors, $\Delta^{op} \rightarrow Set$, with some additional "descent" condition to exploit the combinatorial nature of them. Moreover, for convenience we think of these $\infty$-categories as kind of generalisation of the usual categories, hence someone might think the $S_0$ as the objects, $S_1$ as the morphisms, $S_2$ as the triabgles and so on we can have in mind the usual nerve of a category as a compass to obtain some intuition. What I don't understand, is where the first quote comes into the stage. What does it mean to have $k$-morphisms in the $\infty$-category setup? And if so, what does it mean to have invertible morphisms in that sense?
Thanks in advance!