The following is a probability qualifying exam problem that I'm struggling with.
Suppose that $X_1,..,X_n$ are i.i.d Rademacher random variables, i.e. $\mathbb{P}(X_i = \pm 1) = \dfrac{1}{2}$. Show that, $$ \lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty\mathbb{P}(S_n = k^2) = 0, \;\;\; where \;\;\; S_n = \displaystyle\sum\limits_{i=1}^nX_i $$
Intuitively I can sort of see why for each term in the sum, $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\mathbb{P}(S_n = k^2) = 0$. This is because when $n$ is large, $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}S_n \sim N(0,1)$. However, I'm not sure how to make this argument rigorous. There's the $\sqrt{n}$ in the CLT that might cause trouble as well.
Should I start by considering a small interval around $k^2$, i.e. $(k^2-\epsilon, k^2+\epsilon)$? Then, perhaps I can try to argue that,
$$\mathbb{P}\left(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}(k^2-\epsilon) \leq S_n \leq \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}(k^2+\epsilon)\right) \approx \int\limits_{\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}(k^2-\epsilon)}^{\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}(k^2+\epsilon)}\exp\left(-\frac{x^2}{2}\right)dx $$
Then take limits as $\epsilon \rightarrow 0$?