I have a multivariate function:

$$ f(v_1, v_2)_\phi = v_1 \left(\phi - \frac{v_1 + 1}{2} - 1\right) + v_2 - 1 $$

Where $\phi \in \mathbb{N} $ is an argument of the function and $v_1, v_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $0 \leq v_1 < v_2 < \phi$. The expected codomain of the function is the set:

$$ \left\{0, 1, 2, \dots, \frac{(\phi - 1)\phi}{2} - 1 \right\} $$

I would like to prove that the function $f$ is bijective.

While I can prove bijection for single variable functions, I wasn't able to prove it in multiple variables. Experimental data suggest that it is indeed bijective.

  • $\begingroup$ Can you precisely state the expected codomain of this function, sorry? $\endgroup$ – Patrick Stevens Feb 18 '18 at 20:10
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    $\begingroup$ And are you hoping to show that $f_{\phi}$ is injective as a function of two variables $v_1, v_2$, or that $f$ is injective viewed as a function of three variables $v_1, v_2, \phi$? $\endgroup$ – Patrick Stevens Feb 18 '18 at 20:13
  • $\begingroup$ @PatrickStevens I defined the codimain in an edit. $\phi$ is an argument of the function, so it is a function of $v_1, v_2$ only. How do one usually denote an argument of a function? $\endgroup$ – Omar Emara Feb 19 '18 at 14:29

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