$$\lim_{n->\infty}\left(1+{1\over{n^2+\cos n}}\right)^{n^2+n}$$
I vaguely get the idea that since $\cos n$ and $n$ dont really matter compared to $n^2$, this must evaluate to $e$. But not sure how to prove this. Further do all the limits of form $$\lim_{n->\infty}\left(1+{1\over{n^2+f(n)}}\right)^{n^2+g(n)}$$ evaluate to e given that $f'(x),g'(x)<2x;\forall x>0$?