I excuse myself in advance if the answer to this problem seems blatantly simple, yet I seem to be hitting a brick wall and not getting anywhere, and it seems to me to be a relatively simple problem.
The problem:
Find all curves in the first quadrant so that the following is true: the triangle, bounded by the tangent line to the curves in point T, the x-axis and the line OT has a constant surface area of p (where p is a positive integer, naturally). The point O marks the origin. This must be true for every point T (meaning the choice of T is arbitrary).
Attempt at the solution:
The idea is of course to set up a differential equation, since we have $f'$ as the slope of the tangent line. The equation of the tangent line can be derived as follows:
$y-f(a)=f'(a)(x-a)$,
where I marked $y$ as the tangent, $f$ as the function we are seeking and $a$ the point $x$ in which we determined the tangent to the function.
Now, marking the sides of the triangle as:
$|OX|$ - the side laying of the x-axis
$|OT|$ - the side from the origin to the point T
$|TX|$ - the tangent line to the x-axis
Now, I reasoned to obtain the expressions for these sides as follows:
$|OX|=a-\frac{f(a)}{f'(a)}$ (by setting $y$ to $0$)
$|OT|=\sqrt{(a-0)^2+(f(a)-0)^2}=\sqrt{a^2+f(a)^2}$ (Euclidian distance)
$|TX|=\sqrt{(a-(a-\frac{f(a)}{f'(a)}))^2+(f(a)-0)^2}=\sqrt{(\frac{f(a)}{f'(a)})^2+f(a)^2}=\frac{f(a)\sqrt{1+f'(a)^2}}{f'(a)}$
and the generalise $a->x$, $f(a)->y$ and $f'(a)->y'$, thus obtaining:
$|OX|=x-\frac{y}{y'}=a$
$|OT|=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=b$
$|TX|=\frac{y\sqrt{1+y'^2}}{y'}=c$
We may then connect the sides of the triangle with its surface by Heron's formula:
$S_{triangle}=p=\sqrt{s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c)}$, where $s=\frac{a+b+c}{2}$
However all this seems a bit cumbersome and rather than just plunging myself into all this algebra I spent my time thinking about more elegant ways. I thought about $S=rs$, where $r$ is the radius of the incircle, but then I just translated the problem into finding r, for which I had no idea.
Another idea was trying to express the differential equation through integral application as follows:
$S_{triangle}=p=\int_0^{f(a)}dy\int_{\frac{ay}{f(a)}}^{a+\frac{y-f(a)}{f'(a)}}dx$
I have obtained the above integral like this:
- First we integrate from $0$ to $f(a)$ by $y$ to avoid having to integrate twice.
- We integrate by $x$ from the line $|OT|$ to the line $|TX|$; the equation for $|OT|$ is simply $y=\frac{f(a)}{a}x$ and I have already written the tangent line above.
So, my question here is, if the above reasonings and methods are correct (or so to speak, which, if any, is correct). I am only concerned here with setting up the correct differential equation; solving that is not a problem. I am particularly uncomfortable at the moment by the substitution $a->x$, $f(a)->y$ and $f'(a)->y'$ as it seems kind of forced and I am wondering if it is the right thing to do.
I am grateful for all the answers and possibly (indeed probably) better solutions. Many thanks!