In the spectral theorem for bounded self-adjoint operators we get, for each self-adjoint (bounded) operator $A$ in a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$, and each bounded Borel-measurable function $f \in \mathcal{B}_0(\sigma(A))$ (where I denote by $\mathcal{B}_0(\sigma (A))$ the set of all Borel-measurable functions in the spectrum $\sigma(A)$ of $A$) a bounded operator $f(A)$ defined as
$$\langle \psi, f(A) \psi \rangle = \int_{\sigma(A)} f(\lambda) d\mu_{\psi}(\lambda) \ ,$$
where $\mu_{\psi}$ is a measure defined by a family of "projection-valued measures" $(P_B)_{B \in \mathcal{B}(\sigma(A))}$ which are just $\chi_B(A)$ in the sense of the functional calculus, for each Borel subset $B$ of $\sigma(A)$. Given all this information, the operator $A$ is denoted as
$$ A = \int_{\sigma(A)} \lambda dP_\lambda \ ,$$
and this decomposition is unique in the sense that any other projection-valued measure satisfying this equality should be equal to the first. My questions are: Is there some other reason for this notation for the operator $A$? How this integral should be interpreted, as it isn't actually constructed as a Lebesgue integral? The only way I know to obtain the operator in this case is to use the somewhat more general expression above, and use the polarization identity + Riesz lemma, as usual.
Sorry for the long question, my doubt is quite simple but there was a lot of context before I could express it.