Suppose I have a domain that is not a principal ideal domain $R$, and I have a non-principal prime ideal $\mathfrak{p}$. Then $R_{\mathfrak{p}}$ has a maximal ideal given as $$I=\left\{\frac{x}{y} | x\in\mathfrak{p},y\notin\mathfrak{p}\right\}$$ This is a maximal ideal because:
- It's closed under multiplication: If $\frac{x}{y}\in I$, then for any $\frac{x'}{y'}$ with $y'\notin\mathfrak{p}$, $xx'\in \mathfrak{p}$ since it's an ideal, and if $yy'\in\mathfrak{p}$, then since $\mathfrak{p}$ is prime, one of $y,y'$ would have to be in $\mathfrak{p}$, but we know both of them are not.
- It's closed under addition:If $\frac{x}{y},\frac{x'}{y'}\in I$, then $\frac{xy'+yx'}{yy'}\in I$ since $xy'+yx'\in \mathfrak{p}$ since it's an ideal, and $yy'\notin\mathfrak{p}$ by the same logic as before.
- Everything not in $I$ is a unit, and for any $\frac{x}{y}\in I$ and $\frac{x'}{y'}\notin I$, $\frac{x}{y}+\frac{x'}{y'}=\frac{xy'+x'y}{yy'}$. Since $xy'\in \mathfrak{p}$, then if $xy'+x'y\in \mathfrak{p}$, then $x'y\in \mathfrak{p}$. But neither $x'$ nor $y$ are in $\mathfrak{p}$, and since it's prime, their product cannot be either. Thus, the numerator is not in $\mathfrak{p}$ so it is a unit of $R_{\mathfrak{p}}$.
Since $I$ is basically just the localization of $\mathfrak{p}$ by $R\setminus\mathfrak{p}$, and $\mathfrak{p}$ is not a principal ideal, then won't $I$ also not be a principal ideal?
Since $I$ must be principal for $R$ to be a Dedekind domain, then can we conclude that if a ring $R$ is a Dedekind domain then there are no prime ideals that are not principal?