# Why can't all pointwise continuous functions preserve Cauchy sequences? [duplicate]

If $f$ is a real-valued uniformly continuous function on $A$, then for every Cauchy sequence $(x_n)$ in $A$, $(f(x_n))$ is a real Cauchy sequence.

But why do we need the uniform continuity of $f$ for this? If $f$ is continuous on $A$ then for any point $c$ in $A$, and any Cauchy sequence $(x_n)$ converging to $c$, $(f(x_n))$ converges to $f(c)$, thus making it a Cauchy sequence.

## marked as duplicate by Pedro, tomasz, The Phenotype, Shailesh, LeucippusJan 28 '18 at 0:22

• A continuous function maps convergent sequences to Cauchy sequences. But - for general domain $A$ - not all Cauchy sequences are convergent. – Daniel Fischer Jan 27 '18 at 15:52
Take $f(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}$ on $(0,\infty)$ which is continuous but not uniformly and $a_n=\dfrac{1}{n}$
• Oh. So if the point of convergence of $(a_n)$ lies outside the domain we may face this issue. – Hrit Roy Jan 27 '18 at 15:55