Can somebody show me how can I prove that this proposition is a tautology using logical equivalences?
$\lnot p \land (p \lor q) \to q$
I already did:
$\lnot(\lnot p \land (p \lor q)) \lor q \quad$ definition of the arrow
$(\lnot\lnot p \lor \lnot(p \lor q)) \lor q$
But at this point if I continue following this path I'll reach a dead end...