At first, here is a brief introduction to sub-Gaussian RVs. A random variable $X\in \mathbb{R}$ is said to be sub-Gaussian with variance proxy $\sigma^2$ if $\mathbb{E}(X) = 0$ and its moment generating function satisfies, for $\forall s\in\mathbb{R}$, $\mathbb{E}(e^{sX})\leq\exp(\frac{\sigma^2s^2}{2})$.
Next this is my question, given a $p\in(0,1)$, we have a general Bernoulli RV: \begin{equation*} T= \left\{ \begin{aligned} &1 &\text{ with probability of }1-p,\\ &1-\frac{1}{p} &\text{ with probability of }p. \end{aligned} \right. \end{equation*} I guess it is a sub-Gaussian RV. I just wonder what does the parameter of variance proxy $\sigma^2$ look like? Is it a function of $p$, $\sigma^2(p)$ or just only can find a universal bound $\sigma_0^2$, which is $\sigma_0^2>=\sigma^2$ for any $p\in(0,1)$??
Thank you guys!