I'm studying by myself Measure Theory by Bartle's book and I didn't understand a step on his proof about Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem.
$\textbf{Lebesgue Dominated Convergence Theorem:}$ let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of integrable functions which converges almost everywhere to a real-valued measurable function $f$. If there exists an integrable function $g$ such that $|f_n| \leq g$ for all $n$, then $f$ is integrable and
$$\int f d \mu = \lim \int f_n d\mu.$$
The part that I didn't understand is when Bartle asserts that "It follow from Corollary $5.4$ that $f$ is integrable". According this Corollary,
$\textbf{Corollary 5.4:}$ If $f$ is measurable, $g$ is integrable and $|f| \leq |g|$, then $f$ is integrable and
$$\int |f| d\mu \leq \int |g| d\mu.$$
Then I need just to show that $|f| \leq g$ (its clear that $g = |g|$ since $0 \leq |f_n| \leq g$). I know that its true that if $E$ is such that $\mu(E) = 0$, then $|f| \leq g$ on $X - E$ since
$$|f_n| \chi_{X - E} \leq g \chi_{X - E} \Longrightarrow \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} |f_n| \chi_{X - E} \leq g \chi_{X - E} \Longrightarrow |f| \chi_{X - E} \leq g \chi_{X - E} \Longrightarrow |f| \leq g,$$
on $X - E$, but I don't have this inequality on $X$. Is the result of Corollary valid when the inequality remains $\mu$-almost everywhere on $X$ or can I ensure that $|f| \leq g$ on $X$?
Thanks in advance!