Why is there no product/quotient rule for integration? So it's known that there's no product rule and quotient rule for integration. But is there a reason why they don't exist, and the rules exist for differentiation?
 A: Edit: In light of Carmeister’s comment, I would like to clarify that (in my opinion) there does exist an integral analogue to the product rule, and that analogue is integration by parts.
Unfortunately you can’t comment an image, but I think this visual would supplement the above answers very nicely:

To see how this relates to the product rule, take qbert’s answer and change $f(t)$ and $g(t)$ with $u$ and $v$.
You can see how this works for definite and indefinite integrals by taking the standard integration by parts formula,
$$\int v \, du = uv - \int u\,dv$$
and evaluating it between the points $(v_1,u_1)$ and $(v_2,u_2$), giving you
$$\int_{u_1}^{u_2} v \, du = u_2v_2 - u_1v_1 -\int_{v_1}^{v_2} u\,dv$$
Side note: I hate doing integration by parts with $u$ and $v$ — they just look too similar! That’s why I prefer to use $w$ and $z$.
A: The product rules is in fact an easy way to derive integration by parts! If we have 
$$
\frac{d}{dt}\bigl(f(t)\,g(t)\bigr)=f'(t)\,g(t)+f(t)\,g'(t)
$$
then the FTC tells us that 
$$
\int_{a}^x\frac{d}{dt}\bigl(f(t)\,g(t)\bigr)\,\mathrm dt=\int_a^xf'(t)\,g(t)\,\mathrm dt+\int_{a}^xf(t)\,g'(t)\,\mathrm dt\\
\implies f(x)\,g(x)-\int_a^xf'(t)\,g(t)\,\mathrm dt=\int_{a}^xf(t)\,g'(t)\,\mathrm dt+C
$$
where $C=f(a)\,g(a)$.
A: Integration doesn't follow any type of general rule in case of fractions.
However, for integration of product functions, we've the following breakdown -
Let there be two functions $u(x)$ and $v'(x)$ (further denoted by $u$ and $v$), such that $\displaystyle \int v'(x)  \; dx = v(x)$, 
Then by product rule, we've $$d(uv)=u'v+uv'$$
Integrating both the sides
$$uv=\int u'v+\int uv' $$
$$\implies \color{blue}{\int uv'=uv-\int u'v}$$
This is known as Integration by Parts 
A: I'll try to approach this question in a bit more abstract way. I know I won't be 100% precise in my statements, but I think that this is the point.
First, note that indefinite integration is basically an inverse operation to the derivative, and this is basically the only definition we have. Yes, you can define indefinite integral as $F(x) = \int_a^x f(\xi) d\xi$ and use Riemann (or Lebesgue) integral, but these involve crazy formulas with strange limits of sums and stuff.
The fact that there's an easy formula for the derivative of a product is useless for the inverse derivative of a product. Similarly, note that computing a product of two functions is easy, but computing the inverse function of a product is tough.
Actually, product of invertible functions may not even be invertible! (Example: $e^x\sqrt{1/x}$.)
Or, the inverse may not be expressible in elementary functions. (Example: $e^x\sqrt{x}$.)
And this is in my opinion similar to the integrals, where a product of two functions with integrals expressible in elementary functions may not have such an integral. (The same two examples work.)
So somehow, this issue is related to the fact that when some operation works well on products, its inverse need not to, implicitly.
A: First and foremost, the integration rule that's most "analogous" to the product rule is integration by parts:
$$ \int u \, dv = uv - \int v \, du $$
This formula can be established by starting with the product rule:
$$ d(uv) = v \cdot du + u \cdot dv $$
Now integrate both sides and rearrange a bit.  This leaves out some details, but at a high level that's what's going on.
In general, it's just the case that integration is a much more difficult problem than differentiation.  You can take the derivative of any elementary function you can write down.  But the same is not true of integration.  For example, $e^{\sin x}$ is very easy to differentiate with the chain rule.  But there is no formula to integrate it.
A: I agree with @yo', but I thought it was worth saying more. Because of the chain rule and the product rule, along with the derivative formulas for basic functions, derivatives in general can be calculated mechanically. Algebraically, integration is of course the inverse process, and sometimes inverses can be calculated just as mechanically as the forward operation, but not usually. 
I think the idea of entropy is useful here, at least as a metaphor. There are a lot more ways for a formula to get more complicated (one might almost say disorderly, although it is driven by the underlying order of mathematics) than for it to get simpler. So most differentiation operations (especially the product rule) are going to  make formulas more complicated. That means the inverse operation is unlikely to have a simple form.
In the specific case of the product rule, it's impossible for there to be a simple product rule for integration, because the product rule for derivatives goes from a product of two functions to a sum of two products. Reversing the operation requires you to carefully cancel the extra product of functions, and that's not always possible. But that "careful cancellation" is just the process of integration by parts that several other answers talked about.
