I was recently looking through an introductory probability textbook and encountered the following statement as an exercise to be proved inductively.
$$P(\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}A_i)\ge\sum^n_{i=1}P(A_i)-\sum_{1\lt i\lt j\lt n}P(A_iA_j)$$
The book stated that this was the first in a series of inequalities that give upper and lower bounds for even and odd iterations, until finally giving the inclusion-exclusion principle (an equality) when all terms are included. The first of such inequalities is Boole's inequality. As a method of proof, the book suggested induction with $n$, and additionally suggested the use of Boole's inequality. The book goes on to say, "Continuing like this, show that adding the third sum: $\sum_{i\lt j\lt k}P(A_iA_jA_k)$ gives an upper bound, subtracting the fourth sum gives a lower bound, and so on."