I try to understand some logic proof and I stumbled upon following:
$$\frac{(N+2m)!}{N!\ m!\ m!} < \frac{({N+2m})^{2m}}{m!\ m!}$$
I don't know why it's true.
This is from a book called "A First Course in Logic" by S.Hedman. I think that it will be really obvious, when I see it, but I wasn't able to work that out.