Let $\#$ denote cardinality, and fix $p\in[1,\infty]$.
Let $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a sequence of functions from $[0,1]$ to $\mathbb{R}$ with the properties
- $f_n\in C^{n-1}([0,1])$
- $f^{(n)}_n$ is continuous on $[0,1]\setminus A_n$ where $\#A_n<\infty$ but $ \underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\#A_n=\infty$
- $\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}||f_n^{(m)}||_p$ exists and is finite $\forall m\in\mathbb{N}_0$
- $f_n$ converge pointwise to a function $f$
For what values of $p$ do these imply $f\in C^\infty([0,1])$?
For those $p$ where a counterexample exists, how to construct such an example and/or what would be a convenient additional condition to avoid its existence?
Attempt with $p=\infty$:
Assume that $f^{(0)}$ is not continuous. Then there exists $x\in(0,1)$ and $\varepsilon>0$ such that however small $\delta>0$ is, there exists $x_0$ satisfying $0<|x-x_0|<\delta$ such that $|f(x_0)-f(x)|>\varepsilon$. Moreover $0<|(x_0(\delta)-(x+\delta))/2|<\delta$, and
if $p=\infty$ then 3) implies $\infty>\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}|f_n^{(1)}(x)|$. A contradiction follows:
$$\infty>\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}|3f_n^{(1)}(x)| =\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\left(\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\lim}\left|\frac{f_n(x+\delta)-f_n(x)}{\delta}\right|+2\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\lim}\left|\frac{f_n(x_0(\delta))-f_n(x+\delta)}{x_0(\delta)-(x+\delta)}\right|\right) \hspace{6.4cm}\text{ }\\\hspace{4cm} >\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\left(\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\lim}\left|\frac{f_n(x+\delta)-f_n(x)}{\delta}\right|+\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\left|\frac{f_n(x_0(\delta))-f_n(x+\delta)}{\delta}\right|\right) \\\hspace{2.15cm} >\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\left|\frac{f_n(x+\delta)-f_n(x)}{\delta}+\frac{f_n(x_0(\delta))-f_n(x+\delta)}{\delta}\right| \\\hspace{2cm} =\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\left|\frac{f_n(x_0(\delta))-f_n(x)}{\delta}\right| \hspace{4.6cm}\text{ }\\ \overset{\text{???}}{=}\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\underset{n\to\infty}{\lim}\left|\frac{f_n(x_0(\delta))-f_n(x)}{\delta}\right| \hspace{2.6cm}\text{ }\\ =\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\frac{|f(x_0(\delta))-f(x)|}{\delta} >\underset{\delta\to 0^+}{\limsup}\frac{\varepsilon}{\delta}=\infty \hspace{0.5cm}\text{ }$$
so $f^{(0)}$ is continuous and replacing $f$ and $f_n$ by their derivative smoothness follows by induction. Unless the part with those "???" is wrong?!