$\sum_{m=k}^{n-k} \binom{m}{k}\binom{n-m}{k} = \binom{n+1}{2k+1}, n\ge2k\ge0$
An combinatorial proof of the identity above states as follow:
(1)Number of ways of picking (2k+1) numbers from 1 to (n+1) should be $\binom{n+1}{2k+1}$
(2)We pick (2k+1) numbers from 1 to (n+1) with median value (m+1). Then, k numbers must be selected from 1~m, and the other k numbers must be chosen from (m+2)~(n+1). Thus there are $\binom{m}{k}\binom{n-m}{k}$ ways for picking (2k+1) numbers with median value (m+1). Since $n-k\ge m\ge k$, there are total $\sum_{m=k}^{n-k} \binom{m}{k}\binom{n-m}{k}$ ways.
Since (1)=(2), the statement is true. But is it possible to sketch an algebraic proof that doesn't require building combinatorial models?