It is a question 59 on page 87 from Ross's book (Introduction to Probability Models)
Let $X_1,X_2,X_3,X_4$ are independent continuous random variables with a common distribution function F and let
$p = P(X_1 < X_2 > X_3 < X_4)$
Just as the Title, what does it mean? Or similar questions with such an inequity?
The solution says: Use the fact that F(Xi) is a uniform (0,1) random variable to obtain. But where is this fact?
Update: A similar question
I am not a native-English speaker, and I am learning it by myself.