In another thread I asked for the proof of the following proposition:
Proposition: Let $G_1,\dots,G_n$ be finite groups. Then $G_1\times\dots\times G_n$ is cyclic iff $G_1,\dots,G_n$ are cyclic and $\gcd(\operatorname{ord} G_i,\operatorname{ord} G_j)=1$ if $i\neq j$.
My problem lies with the counterintuitive formula of finding if the direct product of two groups is indeed cyclic. $\gcd(\operatorname{ord} G_i,\operatorname{ord} G_j)=1$ if $i\neq j$.
In an example on the material I am studying it follows:
Case I
$\mathbb{Z}_4\times\mathbb{Z}_3\times \mathbb{Z}_{10}$ is not cyclic.
I know that $4,3,10$ have at least common multiple on this case $60$. I know if the group is cyclic the order of $\mathbb{Z}_4\times\mathbb{Z}_3\times\mathbb{Z}_{10}$ is $60$.
Question:
Why is $\mathbb{Z}_4\times\mathbb{Z}_3\times\mathbb{Z}_{10}$ is not cyclic?
Case II
There is also the case: $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_6$, generated by $ord(1_4,1_6)=12$ The $gcd(4,6)=2\neq 1$
Question:
Is $\mathbb{Z}_2\times\mathbb{Z}_6$ not cyclic?
Question:
What is wrong with my interpretation of the theorem statement?
Thanks in advance!