# Ring homomorphisms from $\mathbb Z_2$ to $\mathbb Z_4$

The following question is from Pinter's Book of Abstract Algebra:

List all the ring homomorphisms from $\mathbb Z_2$ to $\mathbb Z_4$; and from $\mathbb Z_3$ to $\mathbb Z_6$.

I was wondering, is this a trick question? I can't really think of any homomorphisms that go in this direction. There are some that go the other way, for instance

$$\ f = \bigl(\begin{smallmatrix} 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 \\ 0 & 1 & 2 & 0 & 1 & 2 \end{smallmatrix}\bigr), \$$ which is from $\mathbb Z_6$ to $\mathbb Z_3$. The problem I seem to have is that if the function maps one element to two or more different elements, then it isn't a function. If my intuition is correct, could someone outline the best way to show/prove that no such homomorphisms exist? Thanks very much.

• Does Pinter insist that homomorphisms be unital; that is send $1$ to $1$. – Angina Seng Dec 18 '17 at 8:04
• @LordSharktheUnknown No he doesn't insist on that, as far as I can see. – K.Reeves Dec 18 '17 at 8:14

The short answer: the only ring homomorphisms $\ \mathbb Z_2\rightarrow Z_4\$ is the ZERO homomorphism (the "For example" example by @wsj84 was false). On the other hand, $\ \mathbb Z_6\$ is ring-isomorphic to $\ \mathbb Z_2\times\mathbb Z_3.\$ For this reason, in addition to the ZERO homomorphism $\ \mathbb Z_3\rightarrow\mathbb Z_6,\$ there is also the homomorphism which sends $\ 1\in \mathbb Z_3\$ to $\ 4\in\mathbb Z_6\$ (neat).
An extra comment: a ring element $\ x\in R\$ is called an idempotent $\ \Leftarrow:\Rightarrow\ x\cdot x =x.\$ If $\ f :R\rightarrow S\$ is a ring homomorphism then it sends every idempotent $\ x \in R\$ into an idempotent $\ f(x)\in S,\$ indeed:
$$f(x)\cdot f(x) = f(x\cdot x) = f(x)$$
Obviously, $\ 0\$ and $\ 1\$ (if there is any element $\ 1\$ which would be THE unit) is an idempotent. If $\ p\$ is a prime then in the field $\ \mathbb Z_p,\$ just like in an arbitrary field, elements $\ 0\,\ 1\$ are the only idempotents. The same is true for $\ \mathbb Z_{p^n}\$ (for any prime $\ p).\$ But $4\in \mathbb Z_6\$ is an idempotent; this helps to find an explicit decomposition of $\ \mathbb Z_6.\$ In general, the direct products of rings with unit have a respective induced power set of the impotents induced by these units.