I'm trying to understand this proof of the uniform law of large numbers. The proof I mean is on page 2, the theorem titled "ULLN1".
First of all, I don't understand the first inequality:
$$\max_k \sup_\theta\left[ \frac1n\sum g(X_i, \theta)-Eg(X_i,\theta) \right] \leq \max_k\left[\frac1n\sum\sup_\theta g(X_i, \theta)-E\inf_\theta g(X_i,\theta)\right]$$
Is the idea to forget about the $\max$, and bound each $\sup$ separately? It seems like we're just saying $\sup (a-b)\leq \sup a - \inf b$, is that basically it?
Secondly, two lines down, I get that we're applying the standard LLN, but how do we pull the $o_P(1)$ out of the $\max$?
Finally, I'm not sure I really understand the overall structure of the proof. We basically want to prove $f_n\to f$ uniformly, but instead of trying to bound $\sup|f_n-f|$, it seems like we're separately bounding $\sup(f_n-f)$ and $\inf(f_n-f)$, is that right? Can the proof not be rewritten in a more standard way where we just bound an absolute value directly?