Assume a solution of the form
$$
u(x,y)=X(x)Y(y)
$$
and as you did, find
$$
\frac{X''(x)}{X(x)}=-\frac{Y''(y)}{Y}
$$
which then implies both quantities are some constant, say $\lambda$. Solve the two second order linear ODE's
$$
Y''(y)+\lambda Y=0\\
X''(x)-\lambda X=0\\
\implies Y(y)=ae^{\sqrt{-\lambda}y}+ce^{-\sqrt{-\lambda}y}\\
X(x)=b_1e^{\sqrt{\lambda}x}+b_2e^{-\sqrt{\lambda}x}
$$
making your solution the product of the two solutions,
$$
u(x,y)=X(x)Y(y)=(b_1e^{\sqrt{\lambda}x}+b_2e^{-\sqrt{\lambda}x})(ae^{\sqrt{-\lambda}y}+ce^{-\sqrt{-\lambda}y})
$$
Now use your boundary condition to figure out all the constants,
$$
u(0,y)=(b_1+b_2)(ae^{\sqrt{-\lambda}y}+ce^{-\sqrt{-\lambda}y})=0\\
u(1,y)=(b_1e^{\sqrt{\lambda}}+b_2e^{-\sqrt{\lambda}})(ae^{\sqrt{-\lambda}y}+ce^{-\sqrt{-\lambda}y})=0
$$
in order for these to vanish identically for all $y$, we need
$$
b_1=-b_2\\
b_1e^{2\sqrt{\lambda}}=-b_2\implies e^{2\sqrt{\lambda}}=1
$$
unless $b_1=0=b_2$ and we have the zero solution.
We could pick $\lambda=0$, but this would again give us the zero solution. So we take
$$
2\sqrt{\lambda}=2\pi i k\implies \lambda=-\pi^2k^2
$$
for any integer valued $k$.
Where has this left us, now we have
$$
u(x,y)=X(x)Y(y)=(b_1e^{\pi i kx}-b_1e^{-\pi i kx})(a_1e^{\pi |k|y}+a_2e^{-\pi|k|y})=2b_1i\sin(\pi kx)(ae^{\pi |k|y}+ce^{-\pi|k|y})
$$
for any integer $k$. Then using superposition, we may sum over all integer $k$ to build the solution, with coefficients depending on $k$,
$$
u(x,y)=\sum_{k\in \mathbb{Z}}B_k\sin(\pi kx)(a_ke^{\pi |k|y}+c_ke^{-\pi|k|y})
$$
Let us now impose your final condition,
$$
u(x,0)=x-x^2=\sum_{k\in \mathbb{Z}}B_k\sin(\pi kx)(a_k+c_k)
$$
where we can integrate away our troubles. Using orthogonality of trig functions, we integrate against $\sin(nx)$ over $[-1,1]$, with $\frac{1}{2}$ a normalizing constant. This yields,
$$
\frac{1}{2}\int_{-1}^1(x-x^2)\sin(\pi n x)\mathrm dx=B_n(a_n+c_n)\\
\stackrel{\text{symmetry}}{\implies}
\int_{0}^1x\sin(\pi n x)\mathrm dx=\frac{-1}{\pi n}\cos(\pi n)=B_n(a_n+c_n)
$$
Here I think we are stuck unless we impose a condition at $y=\infty$, namely to insure that
$$
\lim_{y\to \infty}|u(x,y)|
$$
exists.
This requires $a_k=0$ for any $k\in \mathbb{Z}$. Yielding for our coefficient
$$
\frac{-1}{\pi n}\cos(\pi n)=B_nc_n
$$
and our solution
$$
u(x,y)=\sum_{k\in \mathbb{Z}}\frac{-1}{\pi k}\cos(\pi k)\sin(\pi kx)e^{-\pi|k|y}
$$