I was wondering when first $n$ integers can be divided into 2 subsets with equal sum. It is obviously possible in case of even numbers Eg $n =4$ $$\{1,2,3,4 \} \Rightarrow \{1,4\}, \{2,3\}$$ It is not possible for $n$ of the form $4k+1$ as sum to $n$ integers is odd. But it is possible for $n$ of the form $4k-1$ (I think) Eg $n =7$ $$\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7\} \Rightarrow \{1,3,4,6\}, \{2,5,7\}$$ Can someone prove this?

  • $\begingroup$ Welcome to MSE. Please use MathJax. $\endgroup$ – José Carlos Santos Dec 5 '17 at 16:29
  • $\begingroup$ “It is obviously possible in case of even numbers” — No. The simplest counterexample, $n=2$, already appears in the answer, but actually it is false for any even number of the form $n=4k+2$, as the sum of all numbers then is $(4k+2)(4k+3)/2 = (2k+1)(4k+3)$ and thus odd. $\endgroup$ – celtschk Dec 6 '17 at 8:08

The natural approach is to use induction. It's false for $n=1$ or $n=2$, but it works for $n=3$. So the proposition as stated so broadly is just plain false.

So let's consider your narrower claim that it's true for $n = 3~(mod~4)$. It's certainly true for $n=3$. Assume it's true for $k = 3~(mod~ 4)$. Thus you have partitioned all these integers $\{1, ..., k\}$into two subsets $A$ and $B$ the sums of whose elements are equal. Then when you add four more integers in sequence, you can take the first and fourth new integers and append them to $A$, and you can take the second and third new integers and append them to $B$. Then their sums are still equal.

  • $\begingroup$ So it is possible exactly if the sum of the numbers is even. $\endgroup$ – celtschk Dec 6 '17 at 8:12
  • $\begingroup$ When $n = 3$, it works for $A=\{1,2\}$ and $B=\{3\}$. The sums of the elements of these sets is not even. $\endgroup$ – Eric Fisher Dec 6 '17 at 8:29
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    $\begingroup$ I meant the sum of all numbers. $1+2+3=6$ which is quite obviously even. It is quite obvious that if that sum is not even, there's no way to divide the set into two subsets with equal sum; the not so obvious part is that the sum being even is already a sufficient condition. $\endgroup$ – celtschk Dec 6 '17 at 16:10
  • $\begingroup$ The sum of the first n integers is n(n+1)/2. You’re right. The proposition is also true for k = 0 (mod 4). The same proof works, with the initial case of n=4. When So it’s necessary and sufficient that the sum be even. $\endgroup$ – Eric Fisher Dec 8 '17 at 8:25

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