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Let $\mathbb{N}$ be the set of natural numbers.

Show that $$\mathbb{N} \leq \mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}$$

I know this is true but I don't know how to show it.

Please help!

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closed as off-topic by user296602, José Carlos Santos, Namaste, Zhanxiong, Rolf Hoyer Nov 27 '17 at 1:00

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by $\Bbb N\leqslant\Bbb N\times \Bbb N$? $\endgroup$ – user228113 Nov 26 '17 at 22:57
  • $\begingroup$ In terms of cardinality yes. It means "No larger than". $\endgroup$ – user3765987 Nov 26 '17 at 22:58
  • $\begingroup$ Technically, you presumably want it to mean "(cardinality) smaller or equal than". $\endgroup$ – user228113 Nov 26 '17 at 22:59
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    $\begingroup$ Why do you know this is true? And what is the definition of $\leq$, not your "intuitive understanding of 'No larger than'"? $\endgroup$ – Asaf Karagila Nov 26 '17 at 22:59
  • $\begingroup$ I don't know how to make the symbol, its not less than or equal too. The symbol does mean "No larger than". $\endgroup$ – user3765987 Nov 26 '17 at 23:03
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You are describing Cantor pairing. Construct an infinite table of (x, y), $x \in \mathbb{N}, y \in \mathbb{N}$. The natural numbers have cardinality $\aleph_0$, and so does the set of (x, y) pairs. Why? Because one can construct a 1-to-1 mapping between them, with $45^{\circ}$ boustrophedon traversal of indices starting with: (1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 1), (2, 2).... He used it to show the rationals ($\frac{x}{y}$) have the same cardinality as the natural numbers.

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    $\begingroup$ Wait, are you claiming that $\Bbb{N\times N}$ is uncountable? Because that's just plain wrong. $\endgroup$ – Asaf Karagila Nov 26 '17 at 23:16
  • $\begingroup$ Asaf, I don't understand your remark. Quoting the cited reference: A set has cardinality $\aleph_{0}$ if and only if it is countably infinite, that is, there is a bijection (one-to-one correspondence) between it and the natural numbers. I gave Cantor's 1-to-1 correspondence between OP's $\mathbb{N} \times \mathbb{N}$, and the countable set $\mathbb{N}$. $\endgroup$ – J_H Nov 26 '17 at 23:24
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You have an injection from $\Bbb N$ into $\Bbb {N \times N}$ by $n \to (n,1)$. That is all you need to show less than or equal to. More interesting, and you can find it on this site, is to show they are equal.

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