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How can I calculate the following derivative? \begin{align} \frac{\partial\int_{0}^{x_1}f(x_2,y)dy}{\partial x_2} \end{align}

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1 Answer 1

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By the Leibniz Rule, $$\ \ \ \frac{\partial \int_{0}^{x_{1}}f(x_{2},y)dy}{\partial x_{2}}=\int_{0}^{x_{1}}{ \frac{\partial f(x_{2},y)}{\partial x_{2}} dy}$$.

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  • $\begingroup$ this doesn't render properly.. $\endgroup$
    – Sunny88
    Dec 6, 2012 at 3:34
  • $\begingroup$ @Jebruho, please do check your LaTeX before you post something... $\endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Dec 6, 2012 at 3:38

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