We know that set of natural numbers is the proper subset of integers. Then why the discrepancy occurs in mathematics that there is a bijection between these two sets. I know about such bijective maps but how to convince our mind to accept this fact?


closed as unclear what you're asking by Lord Shark the Unknown, José Carlos Santos, Andrés E. Caicedo, mechanodroid, Harambe Nov 9 '17 at 22:12

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    $\begingroup$ Um, we prove it. It is important as a first step in understanding infinite cardinals that $A\subsetneq B$ does not mean $A$ has smaller cardinality. $\endgroup$ – Thomas Andrews Nov 9 '17 at 19:21
  • $\begingroup$ Hmm thanks @Thomas $\endgroup$ – Miller Nov 10 '17 at 17:39