I am trying to prove that if $B/A$ is a commutative ring extension then $B$ is finitely generated as an $A$-module iff $B$ is finitely generated as an $A$-algebra and $B$ is integral over $A.$ The converse is I think easy.
Suppose $B$ is finitely generated as an $A$-algebra and is integral over $A.$ Then, $B = A[f_1, ..., f_n] = A[f_1, ..., f_{n - 1}][f_n]$ is finitely generated as an $A[f_1, ..., f_{n - 1}]$-module. Repeat for $f_{n - 1}, ..., f_1.$ We can see that $B$ is then finitely generated as an $A$-module. However, I am having trouble proving the other way. Can I have a hint please?
Edit for a question to Bernard:
Are you saying that because $$\begin{vmatrix} x - a_{11} & -a_{12} & \dots & -a_{1n} \\ -a_{21} & x - a_{22} & \dots & -a_{2n} \\ \vdots & & \ddots & \vdots \\ -a_{n1} & -a_{n2} & \dots & x - a_{nn} \end{vmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} b_1 \\ b_2 \\ \vdots \\ b_n \end{bmatrix} = 0$$ and since the column matrix is not $0$ that $$ \begin{vmatrix} x - a_{11} & -a_{12} & \dots & -a_{1n} \\ -a_{21} & x - a_{22} & \dots & -a_{2n} \\ \vdots & & \ddots & \vdots \\ -a_{n1} & -a_{n2} & \dots & x - a_{nn} \end{vmatrix} = 0?$$