Recently i tried to learn more about connection using Jeffrey Lee's book Manifolds and Differential Geometry (i already read John Lee's Riemannian Manifolds before). After several pages in Jeffrey Lee's book (proposition 12.5), i realized maybe some step missing from a proof about connection in Lemma 4.2 in John Lee's book Riemannian Manifold. And i think its quite confusing for a beginner like me. Here is the lemma 4.2 in John Lee's Riemannian Manifold :
$\textbf{Lemma}.$Let $E \rightarrow M$ be a vector bundle over $M$ and $\nabla : \mathfrak{X}(M) \times \Gamma(E) \rightarrow \Gamma(E)$ be a connection on $E$. For any $X \in \mathfrak{X}(M)$ and $Y \in \Gamma(E)$ and $p \in M$, the value $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ only depends on the value of $X$ at $p$ and the value of $Y$ in neighbourhood of $p$.
The second claim is fine. What i'm worried about is the first claim. That is $(\nabla_X Y)(p)$ depends on $X$ at $p$. This is the proof from the book :
$\textbf{Proof}$ By linearity it is sufficient to show that $(\nabla_XY)(p)=0$ whenever $X_p=0$. Choose a coordinate neighbourhood of $p$ and write $X=X^i \partial_i$ in coordinates on $U$, with $X^i(p)=0$, then $$ (\nabla_XY)(p) = (\nabla_{X^i\partial_i} Y)(p) = X^i(p) (\nabla_{\partial_i}Y)(p) = 0 . (\nabla_{\partial_i}Y)(p) = 0 $$ The first equality, we used lemma $4.1$, which allows us to evaluate $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ by computing locally in $U$; the second , we used linearity of $\nabla$ over $C^{\infty}(M)$in $X$. $\qquad$ $\square$
What bug me is that the argument involving lemma 4.1 which is we can evaluate $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ locally in $U$. Lemma 4.1 says that $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ just depends on the value of $X$ in an arbitrarily small neighbourhood of $p$. I don't see why this is implies that we can evaluate $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ locally in $U$. For any ways, the first argument for $\nabla$ must be a global section $X \in \mathfrak{X}(M)$, so we can't replace $X$ in $(\nabla_XY)(p)$ with $X=X^i \partial_i$, because $X=X^i \partial_i$ is just local expression of $X$ in $U$. This is different from Jeffrey Lee's approach which is by definition of $\textbf{natural covariant derivatives}$ first before proving above statement, which i found more a bit more clear.
Anyone can help me with this ? any help will be appreciated. Thanks.