I thought of deriving the formula for the surface area of a sphere using integration.
So, below are my calculations:- S.A. of sphere = 2 × S.A. of a hemisphere
Now thinking of each of the hemisphere as being made up of an infinite number of circles having their radii in the range r= R to r=0 and knowing that circumference of a circle = $2 \pi r$, we have$:$ $$S.A. = 2× \int_R^0 2 \pi r \,dr$$ $= 2× ( \pi R^2 - 0) $ $= 2\pi R^2$
Why is my derivation wrong?