Let's say that I've got the following IVP:
$\frac{dy}{dx} = f(x,y)$
$y(x_0) = y_0$
And I want conditions that guarantee existence and uniqueness of its solution.
On the one hand I've got the Picard–Lindelöf theorem. It asks that there exists a rectangle $R = [a,b] \times [c,d]$, containing $(x_0, y_0)$ as an interior point, where $f$ is continuous in $x$ and Lipschitz continuous in $y$.
On the other hand I've got a theorem, which I've encountered in many undergraduate text books, that requires $f$ and $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ to be continuous in the aforementioned rectangle.
Are these two different theorems? It seems to me that the hypotheses of the first one are implied by those of the second one. But in that case, why would some authors prefer this more restrictive form of the theorem? Could it be just so that students don't need to learn the concept of Lipschitz continuity?