$f_m(x)=\lim_{n→\infty}(\cos m!\pi x)^{2n}$
Define $f(x)=\lim_{m→\infty}f_m(x)$
For irrational $x$, $f_m(x)=0$ for every $m$ hence $f(x)=0$.
For rational $x$, say $x=p/q$, where $p$ and $q$ are integers,
we see that $m!x$ is an integer if $q \le m$ so that $f(x)=1$.
I can't understand why for irrational $x$, $f_m(x)=0$.