# Is quotient group $(\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z})/(\langle (4,6)\rangle)$ cyclic? [duplicate]

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Is quotient group $(\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z})/(\langle (4,6)\rangle)$ cyclic? I'm not sure but I tried to prove that this is equivalent to $\mathbb{Z}$. It does not work and I'm really stuck now.

## marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra StackExchange.ready(function() { if (StackExchange.options.isMobile) return; $('.dupe-hammer-message-hover:not(.hover-bound)').each(function() { var$hover = $(this).addClass('hover-bound'),$msg = $hover.siblings('.dupe-hammer-message');$hover.hover( function() { $hover.showInfoMessage('', { messageElement:$msg.clone().show(), transient: false, position: { my: 'bottom left', at: 'top center', offsetTop: -7 }, dismissable: false, relativeToBody: true }); }, function() { StackExchange.helpers.removeMessages(); } ); }); }); Oct 13 '17 at 13:43

Let $v_1=(2,3)$ and $v_2=(1,1)$. Then $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z} = \mathbb{Z}v_1 \oplus \mathbb{Z}v_2$ because $\begin{vmatrix}2 & 3 \\ 1 & 1 \end{vmatrix} = -1$
and so $$(\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z})/(\langle (4,6)\rangle) = (\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z})/(2\mathbb{Z}v_1) = (\mathbb{Z}v_1 \oplus \mathbb{Z}v_2) / (2\mathbb{Z}v_1 \oplus 0) \cong \mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{Z}$$ is infinite and not cyclic.
Hint: $2 \cdot\overline{(2,3)} = 0$ in the quotient. So if it were cyclic, it would need to be finite, in particular it can't be isomorphic to $\Bbb Z$.
• Sorry how is $2 \cdot (<(2,3)>)$ in the quotient? – Daniel Li Oct 13 '17 at 0:35
• Expansion on the hint: $\overline{(2,3)}$ is a torsion element of the quotient group as shown above, and $\overline{(1,0)}$ is a non-torsion element. Is it possible for a cyclic group to have both torsion and non-torsion elements? – Daniel Schepler Oct 13 '17 at 0:43
• @Tancredi I did not claim that $\Bbb Z$ is not cyclic. I was impyling that there is a non-zero torsion element. – MatheinBoulomenos Oct 13 '17 at 2:43