Let $(X,d)$ be a sequentially compact metric space and let $(Y,d')$ be a metric space. Let $f: X \to Y$ be a continuous function. Then,$f$ is uniformly continuous.
Just to be sure, by sequentially compact I mean: From any sequence in $X$, there is a convergent subsequence.
I feel this is so simple, but still I'm missing something. We let $f$ be indeed continuous, and we assume $f$ is not uniformly continous. By the proof, it just looks like we are showing "continuity implies uniform continuity".
$f$ is not uniformly continuous:
$\exists \epsilon \gt 0$ : $\forall n \gt 0, \exists x_{n}, y_{n} \in X, d(x_{n},y_{n}) \lt \frac{1}{n}, d'(f(x_{n}),f(y_{n})) \gt \epsilon$.
Then, we've built in the mean time two sequences $(x_{n})_{n}$ and $(y_{n})_{n}$ , converging both to say $l$.
Yet, $d'(f(x_{n}),f(y_{n})) \gt \epsilon, \forall n \in \mathbb N $, which contradicts the continuity of $f$.
How is it important to know $(X,d)$ is sequentially compact ? It seems to me we are not using this assumption at all. We just take the "discrete" definition of uniform continuity to get two convergent sequences leading us to the contradiction. So this would show continuity is anytime equivalent to uniform continuity (of course not).
Any help appreciated.